The only passage that comes immediately to mind is 1 Peter 3:18-20, which is used to support the notion that Jesus descended into Hell and preached to those condemned there. This seems doubtful due to the Noah reference, since there would be many more people in Hell than just those from Noah's time.
Honestly, I never looked at a question and been so utterly stumped. I don't even know where to look...Old Testament prophecy maybe???
Ok...maybe I'm the only one thoroughly interested in this question. Allow me to talk more to myself.
I did some more research, and I came across Jesus' quote to the thief on the cross: "Today you will be with me in Paradise." I guess that means that He went immediately to heaven.
I will admit that this passage is one of the strangest in the Bible. It seems to come from nowhere. It almost seems like an "inside joke" if you will, and I am outside the inside information.
I contemplated it for a bit, and got nowhere. I could not with confidence profess to know what Peter was saying. Therefore, I appealed to other people's thoughts on the passage (particularly MacArthur and Grudem).
MacArthur says that this passage does in fact say that Jesus went down to preach in Hell after He died. Grudem argues that this idea is flawed because of the specific mentioning of the evil spirits from Noah's time. Why would Jesus go and preach only to them? There are scores of other people in Hell; why single them out? Furthermore, what was the point of preaching to those eternally lost? I'm sure they would have known that they were eternally lost and would have somehow figured out why they were eternally lost. Jesus would not go to save them; so what would be His purpose for preaching?
Grudem then offers Augustine's thoughts on the passage: that Jesus, in spirit, preached to the evil humans through Noah in the years preceding the flood. This makes sense after a passage about suffering for the gospel (1 Peter 3:13-17). They ought to look at Christ as an example: he suffered righteously and for the sake of the unrighteous. I think the most important point comes from 1 Peter 3:12 and 3:16. Those who are evil will be repaid by the Lord, JUST LIKE THOSE SLANDERERS IN NOAH'S TIME PAID FOR THEIR SINS (for they are currently in Hell).
The way then to interpret 3:18-20 would be to say that the phrase "he went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison" would mean "he went and proclaimed (in Noah's time) to the spirits who are currently in prison (suffering for their sins)." Verse 20 then shows an example of how God was patient with evil persons during the 100 (or so) years Noah was building the Ark, and how ultimately and those who were faithful were saved, and those who were not were punished. So it shall be with Peter's readers and their enemies. Therefore, the lesson is that if God is patient with sinners, we ought to be also - knowing that if they do not repent they will be properly punished by God.
While this fits the context of the passage and gives them a Godly example to follow in regards to facing sinners, the problem I see is the transition from verse 18 to verse 19. Verse 18 talks about Christ being put to death in the body and being made alive in the Spirit; and verse 19 goes off on preaching to spirits in prison. IT SEEMS SEQUENTIAL, which would then seem to nullify the argument. So, in my estimation, for Grudem's/Augustine's argument to hold water (no pun intended there), they need to thoroughly explain what "made alive in the spirit" means so that it is not the immediate result of Christ's physical death.
This, I imagine, would be quite challenging, because how can you pinpoint a time previously when Christ was suddenly "made alive in the spirit"? It seems like the only logical time to place this would be after the physical death, and therefore it would seem that verse 19 also refers to a time immediately after the physical death. Then, as I mentioned earlier, the problems of verse 20 come up again; and I find myself going in a cycle of contradicing conclusions.
Note that my handy-dandy-groomsman-present-ESV-bible has footnotes that say the translation could be this: "...made alive in the spirit, IN WHOM He went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison WHEN they formerly did not obey..." This would then give credence to Augustine.
So, Matt, after reading all that, you must conclude this: I have no decisive answer to your question; I can only say that I have doubts about concluding that this says Jesus went into Hell after His death because it is a cryptic passage and because I don't know why He would care to preach ONLY to evil spirits from Noah's time.
4 comments:
The only passage that comes immediately to mind is 1 Peter 3:18-20, which is used to support the notion that Jesus descended into Hell and preached to those condemned there. This seems doubtful due to the Noah reference, since there would be many more people in Hell than just those from Noah's time.
Honestly, I never looked at a question and been so utterly stumped. I don't even know where to look...Old Testament prophecy maybe???
Ok...maybe I'm the only one thoroughly interested in this question. Allow me to talk more to myself.
I did some more research, and I came across Jesus' quote to the thief on the cross: "Today you will be with me in Paradise." I guess that means that He went immediately to heaven.
If that is the case then what was Peter talking about?
I will admit that this passage is one of the strangest in the Bible. It seems to come from nowhere. It almost seems like an "inside joke" if you will, and I am outside the inside information.
I contemplated it for a bit, and got nowhere. I could not with confidence profess to know what Peter was saying. Therefore, I appealed to other people's thoughts on the passage (particularly MacArthur and Grudem).
MacArthur says that this passage does in fact say that Jesus went down to preach in Hell after He died. Grudem argues that this idea is flawed because of the specific mentioning of the evil spirits from Noah's time. Why would Jesus go and preach only to them? There are scores of other people in Hell; why single them out? Furthermore, what was the point of preaching to those eternally lost? I'm sure they would have known that they were eternally lost and would have somehow figured out why they were eternally lost. Jesus would not go to save them; so what would be His purpose for preaching?
Grudem then offers Augustine's thoughts on the passage: that Jesus, in spirit, preached to the evil humans through Noah in the years preceding the flood. This makes sense after a passage about suffering for the gospel (1 Peter 3:13-17). They ought to look at Christ as an example: he suffered righteously and for the sake of the unrighteous. I think the most important point comes from 1 Peter 3:12 and 3:16. Those who are evil will be repaid by the Lord, JUST LIKE THOSE SLANDERERS IN NOAH'S TIME PAID FOR THEIR SINS (for they are currently in Hell).
The way then to interpret 3:18-20 would be to say that the phrase "he went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison" would mean "he went and proclaimed (in Noah's time) to the spirits who are currently in prison (suffering for their sins)." Verse 20 then shows an example of how God was patient with evil persons during the 100 (or so) years Noah was building the Ark, and how ultimately and those who were faithful were saved, and those who were not were punished. So it shall be with Peter's readers and their enemies. Therefore, the lesson is that if God is patient with sinners, we ought to be also - knowing that if they do not repent they will be properly punished by God.
While this fits the context of the passage and gives them a Godly example to follow in regards to facing sinners, the problem I see is the transition from verse 18 to verse 19. Verse 18 talks about Christ being put to death in the body and being made alive in the Spirit; and verse 19 goes off on preaching to spirits in prison. IT SEEMS SEQUENTIAL, which would then seem to nullify the argument. So, in my estimation, for Grudem's/Augustine's argument to hold water (no pun intended there), they need to thoroughly explain what "made alive in the spirit" means so that it is not the immediate result of Christ's physical death.
This, I imagine, would be quite challenging, because how can you pinpoint a time previously when Christ was suddenly "made alive in the spirit"? It seems like the only logical time to place this would be after the physical death, and therefore it would seem that verse 19 also refers to a time immediately after the physical death. Then, as I mentioned earlier, the problems of verse 20 come up again; and I find myself going in a cycle of contradicing conclusions.
Note that my handy-dandy-groomsman-present-ESV-bible has footnotes that say the translation could be this: "...made alive in the spirit, IN WHOM He went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison WHEN they formerly did not obey..." This would then give credence to Augustine.
So, Matt, after reading all that, you must conclude this: I have no decisive answer to your question; I can only say that I have doubts about concluding that this says Jesus went into Hell after His death because it is a cryptic passage and because I don't know why He would care to preach ONLY to evil spirits from Noah's time.
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